R2.3: elaborate on Figure C.11 & explain differences between IR% vs CIA% in Table C.1

[jessexknight]

Please elaborate on and support Figure C.11 - it's not immediately clear to me that 'the pattern of incidence reduction versus modelled heterogeneity was similar to the pattern of infections averted versus modelled heterogeneity". Recognising that these data do not stem from the same studies, it is noted that in Table C.1 the incidence reduction increases ~2fold between no risk heterogeneity and activity (no KP), whilst averted infections decreases ~4fold. This would appear to be a key difference?